At 1:09 PM -0700 4/11/04, <illovox at comcast.net> wrote: > > if Jesus was a Jew, why, oh why, the Spanish name? > >Maybe he was Sephardic? > >Well, that can't be because there were no Sephardic Jews at the time...not >yet. Yes, there were. Sephardim predate Christianity in Spain and Italy. There's even a synagogue at Herculaneum. >Oh, and at the time Y'shua walked the Earth, in Hebrew (or Aramaic, whatever >you want to call it) God was referred to as both male AND female names, By then Hebrew was mostly a liturgical language and Aramaic was the common tongue. Not touching the theological issues, -- Erica